Our expert says:
Due to the disruption in workdays there has been a delay in response to your question. We do apologise of any convenience caused.
The issue really is whether the need for Clomid is based on poor ovarian function in the first instance. Often this is detected by baseline blood tests, which suggest that the ovaries and the receptors are not fully functional and require ovulation induction. In other couple were the ovarian response is expected to be normal and healthy the indication for IUI may be based on male factor problems and hence the difference in the numbers of follicles seen between the two types of situations. In the poor ovarian responder such as yourself, the underlying failure may be secondary to poor egg quality and therefore poor embryo quality as apposed to the other situation were egg quality is not a factor. It is important therefore to discuss this in detail with your fertility specialist and it may well be necessary to proceed to injectables to enhance ovarian response and receptor functionality.
Answered by: Dr M.I. Cassim
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