advertisement
Question
Posted by: boo | 2011/05/07

hello

yo doc wassup? my doc decided to revert me back to cipramil 20mg a day in order to see if I TOLERATE IT BETTER THAN CIPRALEX, my question is I know citalopram is a racemic mixture with 2 parts the one part that actully has the antidepressant effects and the other basically redundant and escitalopram having only the one part the part that has the anti depressant effect now my question wont side effects be more pronounced on escitalopram being the more potent one? side effects like fatigue, sexual issues? I have been on citalopram before and I wasnt as tired and their was not much sexual dysfunction but on escitalopram i feel tired and the sexual dysfunction is noticable however im slightly more anxiety free on cipralex thats the only plus but now he wants to try cipramil again im in a pickel lol ! i want the best out of my meds whats your opinion on both the drugs? i havnt had a panic attack in 3 months I dont want them to start now! hes wonderful doc but is hesistant to change to a complete different drug. I NEED ADVICE ON THIS i play sport and i need to know what to do like a 2nd opinion

Not what you were looking for? Try searching again, or ask your own question
Our expert says:
Expert ImageCyberShrink

Brilliant question, boo old mate. I haven't seen a good answer to it. Of course the guys who sold the racemic mixture as citalopram in those days didn't emphasize side-effects as worrisome. Until they lost the exclusive patent on that form, and switched to escitalopram. Many drugs seem to be discovered in a racemic form, and its intiguing that its usually only when the patent on that version is about to run out, that companies find the non-racemic version ( on which they can get a fresh patent ) and market it instead.
I like your argument, that the non-racemic ( left AND right-handed versions of the molecules, for folks not into such chemistry ) form being the more active may well have the more side-effects. Not necessarily so, however, as even drugs / chemicals which have no useful benefits may have side-effects. But only if the sexual side-effects and fatigue were caused only by the less effective version, would the escitalopram be free of these effects.
Also, the extent to which any of us is bothered by side-effects is very individual, and on the same drug, one person may have no complaitns and another is severely troubled by them.
The ultimate test is actually trying them both, as you haven. And if you experienced the benefits you needed, with less troublesome side-effects on the citalopram, I'd go with that.
A benefit of citalopram is that it is available in cheaper but equally effective generic forms.
As apparently ou didn't have the paic atacks on citalopram, they shouldn't return when you return to that drug.
Sadly, what we absolutely know for sure about drugs is never as certain as we'd like

The information provided does not constitute a diagnosis of your condition. You should consult a medical practitioner or other appropriate health care professional for a physical exmanication, diagnosis and formal advice. Health24 and the expert accept no responsibility or liability for any damage or personal harm you may suffer resulting from making use of this content.

1
Our users say:
Posted by: cybershrink | 2011/05/07

Brilliant question, boo old mate. I haven't seen a good answer to it. Of course the guys who sold the racemic mixture as citalopram in those days didn't emphasize side-effects as worrisome. Until they lost the exclusive patent on that form, and switched to escitalopram. Many drugs seem to be discovered in a racemic form, and its intiguing that its usually only when the patent on that version is about to run out, that companies find the non-racemic version ( on which they can get a fresh patent ) and market it instead.
I like your argument, that the non-racemic ( left AND right-handed versions of the molecules, for folks not into such chemistry ) form being the more active may well have the more side-effects. Not necessarily so, however, as even drugs / chemicals which have no useful benefits may have side-effects. But only if the sexual side-effects and fatigue were caused only by the less effective version, would the escitalopram be free of these effects.
Also, the extent to which any of us is bothered by side-effects is very individual, and on the same drug, one person may have no complaitns and another is severely troubled by them.
The ultimate test is actually trying them both, as you haven. And if you experienced the benefits you needed, with less troublesome side-effects on the citalopram, I'd go with that.
A benefit of citalopram is that it is available in cheaper but equally effective generic forms.
As apparently ou didn't have the paic atacks on citalopram, they shouldn't return when you return to that drug.
Sadly, what we absolutely know for sure about drugs is never as certain as we'd like

Reply to cybershrink

Have your say

Thanks for commenting! Your comment will appear on the site shortly.
Thanks for commenting! Your comment will appear on the site shortly.
advertisement